IIRC the Thorndike dictionary established U.S. spellings (at least for those who used the dictionary) via a survey of most commonly used spelling.
Even then we were being manipulated by polling data.
EDIT:
Well, sources seem to indicate it was Webster who consciously wanted U.S. spellings to be “superior” to UK versions (no arroagnce there!)
Wonder where I heard the Thorndike theory.